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We've been asked about contradictions in the Bible:
     Intro: 2 kinds of people allege that the Bible contains
contradictions: a) Honest, who has heard the charge. Cannot name
any, but believes it because he has heard it so often. b) One who
has a low view of Scripture, either because he wants nothing to do
with the Bible and religion, or because he wants to make way for
latter day revelations which he treasures.

     [1] Questions: a) Is the same thing or person under
consideration b) Is the same time period in view? c) Is the
language that seems to be self-contradictory employed in the same
sense? For example: Robert is rich. Robert is poor. Do these
statements contradict one another? The answer is--not necessarily!
First, two different people named Robert could be under
consideration. Second, two different time frames might be in view;
Robert could have been rich but, due to financial disaster, he
became poor. Third, the terms "rich" and "poor" might have been
used in different senses; Robert could be spiritually rich but
economically poor. It is never proper to assume a contradiction
exists until every possible means of harmonization has been fully
exhausted.


I. IS THE SAME PERSON OR THING UNDERCONSIDERATION?
     A. Gen. 7: ark; Josh. 3 ark
     B. Acts 12 James beheaded; Acts 15f.James
     C. Different types of works are addressed in the Scriptures
(Jas.2:14ff; Phil.2:12) but salvation cannot be obtained by works
of the Mosaic Law (Rom.3:28) or by boastful works of human merit
(Eph.2:9). 

II. IS THE SAME TIME REFERENCE IN VIEW?
     A. Gen. 1: Good; Gen.6: God said He was sorry He made man.
     B. Mark writes that the Lord was crucified at the 3rd hour
(Mk.15:25)--Jewish time-- John's account has the Savior being tried
at the 6th hour (Jno.19:14), seemingly 3 hours after being nailed
to the cross. John's time reference was based upon Roman time.  

III. IS THE LANGUAGE EMPLOYED IN THE SAME SENSE?
     A. Jno.1:21, John denied that he was Elijah (literally).
Mt.11:14; John is identified as Elijah (Mt.11:14): he was the
spiritual antitype of that great prophet; he prepared the way for
the Lord in the spirit and power of Elijah (Lk.1:17)
     
     1. "Jno.1:18 contradicts Exodus 24:10"
          To see God's face is death Ex.33:20.

     2. Rev.21:1 contradicts Eccle.1:4.
          cf. Ex. 21:6; 31:17.
     3. Acts 9:7 (hearing a voice)/ Acts 22:9 (but they did not
hear the voice.
          Answer: W.E. Vine says (p.204), "Thus in Acts 9:7,
'hearing the voice,' the noun 'voice' is in the partitive genitive
case...whereas in 22:9, 'they heard not the voice,' the
construction is with the accusative. This removes the idea of any
contradiction. The former indicates a hearing of the sound, the
latter indicates the meaning or message of voice (this they did not
hear)." So, an honest investigation shows there is not any
contradiction here!

Differences are not contradictions. To say that John is a husband
and to say he is a father is not a contradiction. Cf. Mt.27/Acts1:
It was Judas' money with which the field was bought.

The perfect God cannot be the source of confusion (1 Cor. 14:33) or
contradiction (Heb.6:18).
     It must be acknowledged that the Bible is perfectly
harmonious.
     Let us not charge God foolishly.

     The word of God is not at fault (cf. Rom. 3:4).









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