Question: Please explain sinless perfection. 1 John 3: v.3) The hope which we have is in being like him when He shall appear. This passage may not be legitimately cited to sustain the view that it is possible for a child of God to live above sin here. Such a view is opposed to other statements by the same writer (1 Jno.1:8;2:1). Continue to need the cleansing blood of Jesus (1 John 1:7-9). v.4) This was a sorely needed lesson. Certain heretical sects of the time (Gnostics) held that their superior knowledge made them immune from the demands of God's law, and that God would not impute to them wrongdoing even though their conduct was in conflict with God's law. v.5) The purpose of Christ's coming. Jesus was completely sinless (Jno.7:18, 8:46; 2 Cor. 5:21, Heb. 4:15; 7:26; 9:13;1 Pet. 2:21-23). v.6) To abide means to settle down and remain, as in one's permanent home. Tense: "whosoever keeps on abiding." Not saying that a Christian is not capable of committing a single act of sin; this would be in conflict with what has just been said. Key is the tense of the verbs which set forth the action involved. The (present) tense indicates action that is in progress at the present time. Lit. "whosoever continues to abide in Him, does not keep on sinning." That is not his practice as it was before his conversion. Cf. 1 Cor. 9:27; Phil.3:12. A plan has been provided (1 Jno. 2:1). v.8) He who lives a life of habitual sin is of the devil. But cf. Peter v.9) Doeth no sin: present active indicative of poio, does not keep on doing sin. The reference here is to persistent, continuous, willful sin, such as that contemplated in v. 6. Seed: Lk. 8:11; Psa.119:11. cf. Rom. 3:23; Rom. 6:1-6: We are thus no longer to continue in sin. Not even isolated acts of sin are to be indulged in. cf. 1 Cor. 10:13.