We've been asked about contradictions in the Bible: Intro: 2 kinds of people allege that the Bible contains contradictions: a) Honest, who has heard the charge. Cannot name any, but believes it because he has heard it so often. b) One who has a low view of Scripture, either because he wants nothing to do with the Bible and religion, or because he wants to make way for latter day revelations which he treasures. [1] Questions: a) Is the same thing or person under consideration b) Is the same time period in view? c) Is the language that seems to be self-contradictory employed in the same sense? For example: Robert is rich. Robert is poor. Do these statements contradict one another? The answer is--not necessarily! First, two different people named Robert could be under consideration. Second, two different time frames might be in view; Robert could have been rich but, due to financial disaster, he became poor. Third, the terms "rich" and "poor" might have been used in different senses; Robert could be spiritually rich but economically poor. It is never proper to assume a contradiction exists until every possible means of harmonization has been fully exhausted. I. IS THE SAME PERSON OR THING UNDERCONSIDERATION? A. Gen. 7: ark; Josh. 3 ark B. Acts 12 James beheaded; Acts 15f.James C. Different types of works are addressed in the Scriptures (Jas.2:14ff; Phil.2:12) but salvation cannot be obtained by works of the Mosaic Law (Rom.3:28) or by boastful works of human merit (Eph.2:9). II. IS THE SAME TIME REFERENCE IN VIEW? A. Gen. 1: Good; Gen.6: God said He was sorry He made man. B. Mark writes that the Lord was crucified at the 3rd hour (Mk.15:25)--Jewish time-- John's account has the Savior being tried at the 6th hour (Jno.19:14), seemingly 3 hours after being nailed to the cross. John's time reference was based upon Roman time. III. IS THE LANGUAGE EMPLOYED IN THE SAME SENSE? A. Jno.1:21, John denied that he was Elijah (literally). Mt.11:14; John is identified as Elijah (Mt.11:14): he was the spiritual antitype of that great prophet; he prepared the way for the Lord in the spirit and power of Elijah (Lk.1:17) 1. "Jno.1:18 contradicts Exodus 24:10" To see God's face is death Ex.33:20. 2. Rev.21:1 contradicts Eccle.1:4. cf. Ex. 21:6; 31:17. 3. Acts 9:7 (hearing a voice)/ Acts 22:9 (but they did not hear the voice. Answer: W.E. Vine says (p.204), "Thus in Acts 9:7, 'hearing the voice,' the noun 'voice' is in the partitive genitive case...whereas in 22:9, 'they heard not the voice,' the construction is with the accusative. This removes the idea of any contradiction. The former indicates a hearing of the sound, the latter indicates the meaning or message of voice (this they did not hear)." So, an honest investigation shows there is not any contradiction here! Differences are not contradictions. To say that John is a husband and to say he is a father is not a contradiction. Cf. Mt.27/Acts1: It was Judas' money with which the field was bought. The perfect God cannot be the source of confusion (1 Cor. 14:33) or contradiction (Heb.6:18). It must be acknowledged that the Bible is perfectly harmonious. Let us not charge God foolishly. The word of God is not at fault (cf. Rom. 3:4).