Question: Is baptism sprinkling or immersion? "About the year 251 A.D., Eusebuis informs us that one Novation, being on a sick bed, desired to be baptized. But he was thought too weak to be taken to the water, and so it was arranged to put a great quantity of water upon him as he lay upon his bed, as the nearest possible approach to baptism under the circumstances." (LCWilson, Hy. of Sprinkling.p.3). But this was followed by controversy. Jesus can claim no authority that is not expressed in His commands: and it would be a refection to say that He did not make himself perfectly clear. If no man can tell what the commission means, or if it means any one of a dozen things, then is baptism not binding upon us. But such a proposition is at once sacrilegious and absurd. The expression of one thing is the exclusion of another. If immersion is expressed, then is sprinkling and pouring excluded. There is one baptism, and not three (p.8) TAVAL (Ges. 317) "To dip, to dip in, to immerse, followed by an acc[usative] of the thing, and [Heb."b(e)] before the liquid"..."Intrans. to immerse oneself. 2 Kings 5:14..."dipped himself in the Jordan seven times." (Wilson: the LXX renders this BAPTIZO, p.47).